Concluding financial transactions with South African public entities: The legal considerations

By Ntando Siswana, Clinton van Loggerenberg and Deborah Carmichael

Following South Africa’s sovereign credit rating downgrade by ratings agencies Standard & Poor’s, Fitch and, on 9 June 2017, Moody’s, as well as developments in political circles around allegations of “state capture”, relations between private business and the country’s public entities have become a hot topic.

An important aspect of the interaction between private business and public entities is the financing that private lenders (such as banks, private equity firms and hedge funds) advance to public entities, such as state-owned companies.

Lenders, bondholders and hedge counterparties expect that, from a legal perspective at least, the financial transactions that they conclude with public entities create legal, binding and enforceable obligations on the state and/or the relevant public institution with which they are contracting.

Below are some of the main legal considerations to bear in mind when transacting with South African public entities.

Section 66 of the PFMA

The Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (the “PFMA”) is the principal legislation governing public finance in South Africa. It was enacted to promote, among other things, the efficient and effective management of public finances.

Section 66(1) of the PFMA prohibits an institution, to which the PFMA applies, from borrowing money, or issuing a guarantee, indemnity or security, or entering into any transaction that binds or may bind that institution to any future financial commitment, unless such borrowing or other transaction is authorised in terms of the PFMA and, in the case of public entities, is also authorised by other legislation that is not in conflict with the PFMA.

Consequences of non-compliance

There are serious consequences when an institution to which the PFMA applies fails to comply with section 66 of the PFMA. Section 68 of the PFMA provides that, if a person lends money to an institution to which the PFMA applies or purports to issue, on behalf of such an institution, a guarantee, indemnity or security, or enters into any other transaction which purports to bind such an institution to any future financial commitment, without complying with section 66 of the PFMA, the state and/or that institution will not be bound by the lending contract or the guarantee, indemnity, security or other transaction.

The consequences of purporting to conclude a transaction that has not been approved under the PFMA are even more dire for an official of a public entity. Section 86(3) of the PFMA imposes a criminal penalty on a person who purports to act on behalf of a public entity or who enters into a contract that purports to bind a public entity to a future financial commitment. If found guilty, such a person may be liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for up to five years.

“Public entity”?

The PFMA applies to, among others, government departments, constitutional institutions and public entities listed in schedule 2 and 3 of the PFMA.

The PFMA defines a public entity as a national or provincial public entity. This definition extends to national and provincial government business enterprises, boards, commissions, companies, corporations, funds and any other entities that:

  1. have been established in terms of national or provincial legislation;
  2. are fully or substantially funded either from the National Revenue Fund or by way of a tax, levy or other money imposed in terms of national legislation; and
  3. are accountable to Parliament.

In establishing whether a counterparty is a public entity to which the PFMA applies, the first place to look would be the schedules to the PFMA. If not specifically listed in the PFMA, a further analysis would be required to determine whether that entity meets the other requirements to be considered a public entity.

The Minister of Finance has powers to exempt any institution to which the PFMA applies, or any category of those institutions, from any specific provisions of the PFMA.

Does the transaction involve a “future financial commitment”?

Determining whether or not a transaction falls into the category of a future financial commitment is not always straightforward. The prevailing case law dealing with the meaning of the term future financial commitment is not particularly clear. This means that a case-by-case analysis is required for each transaction, and specific legal advice should always be sought in this regard.

Is the transaction properly authorised?

Section 66(3) of the PFMA prescribes the persons through whom public entities may borrow money or issue a guarantee, indemnity or security, or enter into any other transaction that binds or may bind that public entity to any future financial commitment.

A public entity listed in schedule 2 of the PFMA may only enter into such transaction through its accounting authority, namely, its board of directors.

When dealing with a schedule 2 public entity, it is important to ensure that:

  1. the transaction has been properly authorised by the accounting authority; and
  2. the resolutions in terms of which the transaction have been authorised comply with the requirements of section 66 of the PFMA.

Delegation of authority

The boards of some public entities purport to delegate the authority to approve loans or other transactions for a future financial commitment to a specific person or persons occupying certain posts in that institution. According to section 66(6) of the PFMA, such a delegation can only be given with the prior written approval of the Minister of Finance. It is not sufficient to simply notify the Minister of Finance – prior approval, in writing, must be obtained.

Where a transaction appears to be approved by anyone other than the accounting authority for that institution, it is imperative to ensure that there is a valid delegation of the accounting authority’s authority in place, and that such delegation of authority enjoys valid ministerial approval.

Submission of the borrowing programme

Section 66(7) of the PFMA prescribes that an entity authorised to borrow money must annually submit to the Minister of Finance a borrowing programme for the year. Furthermore, such entity may not borrow money in a foreign currency above a prescribed limit, except when that public entity is a company in which the state is not the only shareholder.

Lenders to public entities need to satisfy themselves that the public entities to which they are lending money have, in fact, submitted their borrowing programmes to the Minister of Finance for that year. Further, where the borrowing is denominated in foreign currency, such borrowing must be within the prescribed foreign currency borrowing limits.

Other legislation

In addition to the PFMA, public entities will often also be governed by specific legislation in terms of which they have been established. This legislation must be considered together with the provisions of the PFMA.

It is important to note that in the event of any inconsistency between the PFMA and any other legislation, the provisions of the PFMA prevail.

Conclusion

A public entity borrower’s/counterparty’s non-compliance with section 66 of the PFMA has very serious implications. For the party transacting with the public entity, there is the risk that the transaction will be void and therefore unenforceable. For officials or employees acting on behalf of a public entity, there is the risk of criminal conviction, which comes with the prospect of prison time.

It is very important for parties to involve legal counsel right at the beginning of any transaction involving a public entity where a loan, a guarantee, indemnity, security or any other future financial commitment may be involved.

Disclaimer:

This article was first published by ENSafrica (www.ENSafrica.com) on 21 June 2017.

No information provided herein may in any way be construed as legal advice from ENSafrica and/or any of its personnel. Professional advice must be sought from ENSafrica before any action is taken based on the information provided herein, and consent must be obtained from ENSafrica before the information provided herein is reproduced in any way. ENSafrica disclaims any responsibility for positions taken without due consultation and/or information reproduced without due consent, and no person shall have any claim of any nature whatsoever arising out of, or in connection with, the information provided herein against ENSafrica and/or any of its personnel. Any values, such as currency (and their indicators), and/or dates provided herein are indicative and for information purposes only, and ENSafrica does not warrant the correctness, completeness or accuracy of the information provided herein in any way.

Proposal for a new category of premium listing for sovereign controlled companies

By Patrick Lyons and Amy Rees

It has been widely reported that leading international markets, including London and New York, are angling to land the highly-anticipated IPO of Saudi Aramco.

In line with the British government’s stated policy to ensure that London retains its position as the leading international financial centre, the UK Financial Conduct Authority (the “FCA”) has published proposed new listing rules for “sovereign controlled companies”, which would establish a new premium listing category that would permit investors to access such companies’ shares and are intended to enhance London’s attractiveness as a listing venue. The new premium listing category would maintain the existing investor protections applicable to premium listed companies, except for certain related party and controlling shareholder rules.

The FCA considers there to be a clear gap in the market in respect of sovereign controlled companies and that investors and the market are able to assess the additional risks arising from investing in the securities of sovereign controlled issuers. Introducing a new premium listing segment is intended to address this gap and allow for a clearly differentiated listing regime for such companies. However, as companies taking advantage of the new premium listing category would not ordinarily be eligible for inclusion in the leading indices, such as the FTSE indices, no investors would be “forced” to hold shares of sovereign controlled companies.

On 13 July 2017, the FCA published its “Proposal to create a new premium listing category for sovereign controlled companies” consultation paper (the “Consultation Paper”). The Consultation Paper includes proposals aimed at improving access to the UK capital markets for sovereign controlled companies, while ensuring that key investor protections remain in place. The FCA is seeking views on these proposals by 13 October 2017.

The Consultation Paper follows on from discussion paper DP17/2 published by the FCA in February 2017, which considered (i) the role of the listed primary markets as an important component of the broader capital markets landscape and (ii) the structure of the UK listing regime in supporting that role. DP17/2 also proposed the establishment of a distinct international segment for large overseas companies (a proposal that received a mixed response). A significant concern raised by investors in response to this proposal was that the FCA should avoid introducing lower standards of regulation for listed companies on the grounds of nationality.

The key proposal included in the Consultation Paper (to establish a new premium listing category for sovereign controlled commercial companies, to which existing investor protections applicable to premium listed companies, save for the related party rules and the controlling shareholder rules, will be applicable) differs from that included in DP17/2 in that it largely retains the key investor protections that exist for companies with premium listings for the proposed new category, while recognising the differences between purely private sector companies and those controlled by sovereigns.

The proposed new category would thus be available to those sovereign controlled companies that cannot (or may not wish to) satisfy the general rules in respect of controlling shareholders and related party transactions, as they would relate to the sovereign controlling shareholder, but can meet the other premium listing requirements. Access to the new premium listing category is not limited to overseas companies (although it is less likely to benefit UK companies) and would be available to companies wishing to list both equities and depositary receipts representing interests in equity securities.

Next steps

The FCA asks for views on the overall proposal to create a fourth category of premium listing, as well as to the more specific questions raised in the Consultation Paper, by 13 October 2017. A policy statement, including draft rules, will be published at the end of 2017. The FCA also proposes to review and consult on related changes that may be required to technical and procedural notes.

The FCA is continuing its review of the effectiveness of primary markets and may advance other policy proposals in due course.

Website: https://www.dechert.com/

The shoe is on the other foot: The High Court orders SARS to discover documents in the context of a review application

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By Louis Botha and Nandipha Mzizi

It seldom happens that the South African Revenue Service (SARS) is compelled to provide documents to a taxpayer, while SARS is conducting an audit. In Carte Blanche Marketing CC and Others v Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service (26244/2015) [2017] ZAGPPHC 253 (26 May 2017), the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria had to decide whether SARS should be compelled to produce certain documents requested by the applicants (Taxpayers) in the context of a review application brought by the Taxpayers.

The main proceedings in this matter involve a review application which the Taxpayers brought against SARS seeking to set aside the “decision” of SARS to audit them in terms of s40 of the Tax Administration Act, No 28 of 2011 (TAA).

Facts

In August 2014, SARS gave the Taxpayers a notice of its intention to audit them, in terms of s40 of the TAA, based on a risk assessment. This is one of the bases on which an audit can be instigated in terms of s40. In the same notice, SARS requested a range of documents in terms of s46 of the TAA. The Taxpayers refused to hand over the said documents but instead sought reasons for the audit. They alleged that the decision to audit was as a result of SARS’s improper motives.

In its response, SARS said that it had noted discrepancies between the Taxpayers’ turnovers as obtained from the bank statements and their declared gross income. SARS had obtained the bank statements in terms of s46(3) of the TAA. The Taxpayers, dissatisfied with the reasons, instituted the main review application in the High Court, to set aside SARS’s decision to instigate the audit. SARS accordingly filed a record of proceedings in terms of Rule 53(1) of the Uniform Rules of Court (HC Rules), which it asserted it did for “pragmatic reasons”. The Taxpayers were again not satisfied that the record contained all documents and sought access to further documents by bringing an interlocutory application to compel SARS to produce additional documents. SARS opposed the application.

The court had to decide whether the Taxpayers’ interlocutory application to compel discovery should be granted.

Legal Framework

Section 40 of the TAA states that “SARS may select a person for inspection, verification or audit on the basis of any considerations relevant for the proper administration of a Tax Act, including on a random or risk assessment basis”. Furthermore, s46 of the TAA states that “SARS may, for the purposes of the administration of a tax Act in relation to a taxpayer…require the taxpayer or another person to, within a reasonable period, submit relevant material (whether orally or in writing) that SARS requires”.

On the other hand, Rule 53(1) of the HC Rules affords parties the right to review decisions of officers performing administrative functions. Conduct can be reviewed in terms of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act, No 3 of 2000 (PAJA) or if it was exercised by a public power and had to be rational.

Judgment

As stated above, the issue the High Court had to decide was whether the Taxpayers’ application to compel discovery should be granted. However, the decision was complicated by the fact that the High Court had to consider whether the issues to be decided in the main review application, should also be taken into account to decide whether to grant the interlocutory application.

In its argument, SARS referred to reported cases where it was decided that a court in an interlocutory application could not avoid deciding a purely legal issue. The court held that such cases can only be decided on a case by case basis. It held that the court hearing the interlocutory application must be reasonably certain that a decision on the legal point will put an end to the case, or will dispose of a substantial part of the case. If there is a risk that the early decision of a legal point could complicate the further and full ventilation of the matter, the court should decline the invitation to decide such a legal issue.

The High Court stated that when one has to decide whether conduct is reviewable in principle, it is advisable to err on the side of caution, especially in the light of Constitutional Court decisions which have held that all public power is reviewable on some or other basis. The court held that the threshold to initiate an audit in terms of s40 of the TAA is extremely low and accepted that the instances where the court will interfere are rare. The High Court did, however, state that it would be unlawful for SARS to use the provisions of the TAA for an ulterior purpose. Any decision to audit must therefore be taken for purposes of administration of a tax Act.

SARS further argued that the Taxpayers’ litigation was vexatious and constituted an abuse of process and that if litigants were allowed to take decisions made in terms of s40 of the TAA under review, it would bring the entire tax administration system to a halt. The court rejected this argument and held that the issue was whether the parties used the existing court rules sensibly and efficiently. The court also commented that SARS could not select at what stage it wanted to object to litigation.

In the current matter, SARS argued that as the audit did not have any direct external legal effect, which is a requirement for conduct to constitute administrative action in terms of PAJA, the decision to audit was not reviewable. The court took the view that the main application constituted a review in terms of PAJA and also raised general grounds of rationality review, as the powers under s40 and s46 of the TAA constituted exercises of public power. The court accepted that there are strong arguments to be made against an assertion that the audit constituted administrative action, as the audit is merely provisional and only once the additional assessment is raised then it constitutes administrative action. The court, however, noted that the decisions and processes in tax administration are related to a decision that will ultimately constitute administrative action and as such should not be shielded from judicial scrutiny at the earliest stage possible. Court interference at this stage is very rare and occurs in exceptional cases, it said.

On whether the actions had the necessary “direct legal effect”, the court referred to how the word “audit” is not defined in the TAA, but that an audit can be unobstructive or invasive, depending on the nature thereof. Therefore, the court suggested that an audit will not always constitute administrative action. The court should also be careful in deciding matters before they are ripe for review especially since the notice sent by SARS is the beginning stage of its statutory powers. On the other hand, malice by SARS must be dealt with. It noted that High Court review proceedings could also seriously affect the efficacy of SARS’s work and that some taxpayers have, on occasion, seriously abused court processes.

Interestingly, the court opined that the real complications arising from this matter were due to the issue of jurisdiction of tax courts. The TAA deals with dispute resolution in tax administration extensively and it is therefore unclear why the High Court retains some residual review jurisdiction, but agreed that the legislature appears to have expressly retained High Court jurisdiction over tax cases in limited instances. It considered the provisions of s105 of the TAA and the amendments thereto in 2015, which suggest that the High Court retains residual review jurisdiction. However, it went on to state that in its opinion, there is no reason why an ordinary Tax Court should not be competent to grant urgent interim relief as other courts with similar status to that of a High Court do so, such as labour courts and the land claims courts.

The court concluded that these matters are too complex to be adjudicated in an interlocutory matter and therefore declined to decide the legal issues in the main review application. It ordered SARS to discover the documents requested by the Taxpayers in its discovery notice, in terms of Rule 35(3) of the HC Rules. It also ordered SARS to pay the Taxpayers’ costs of the application to compel.

Comment

Although the comments by the court regarding the reviewability of SARS’s decisions in terms of s40 and s46 of the TAA are not binding and merely constituted obiter dictum, its comments do suggest that an audit could constitute administrative action under certain circumstances. It will therefore be interesting to see what the High Court decides in the main application. At the same time, the judgment serves as an indication that where taxpayers feel that SARS is overstepping the bounds of its powers, taxpayers would be well entitled to approach the courts to review such conduct and to enforce their procedural rights, including the right to request discovery.

The High Court’s statements regarding the jurisdiction of the High Court and the Tax Court are also interesting to note. It remains to be seen, however, whether its suggestion that the Tax Court can consider review applications regarding tax matters in terms of s105 of the TAA, is correct. In Wingate-Pearse v Commissioner of the South African Revenue Service 2017 (1) SA 542 (SCA), the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) considered what kind of matters could be heard by the Tax Court. The case concerned a taxpayer wanting to appeal the Tax Court’s decision in an interlocutory application. We discussed this case in our Tax and Exchange Control Alert of 7 October 2016.

Section 117 of the TAA defines the jurisdiction of the Tax Court, and s117(3) states that the Tax Court’s jurisdiction includes hearing any interlocutory application or any application in a procedural matter relating to a dispute under Chapter 9 of the TAA, which is the chapter dealing with disputes and appeals. Without going into the details of that judgment, the court suggested in Wingate-Pearse that as the Tax Court is a creature of statute, its jurisdiction is limited to what is provided by the TAA and the Tax Court Rules. The SCA did not consider whether s105 of the TAA conferred jurisdiction on the Tax Court to consider review applications, as suggested by the High Court in the Carte Blanche case discussed in this article. Therefore this issue remains undecided.

Regulating the Regulators: IIROC 2016 Report Card Released

By Darin R. Renton

 

The Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC) is the national self-regulatory organization (SRO) that oversees all investment dealers, as well as trading activity on debt and equity marketplaces in Canada. Like other regulated entities, IIROC is subject to the oversight of securities regulators, in this case each of the ten provincial securities regulators that have recognized IIROC as an SRO, collectively, the Recognizing Regulators (RRs). On July 4, 2017, the participating RRs issued their Oversight Review Report of the Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada with the results of their review for the period from April 1, 2015 to July 31, 2016. The previous review was conducted in 2015.

The 2016 Report Card: Seven Deficiencies

The Report outlines findings across four IIROC functional areas, prioritized by RR Staff as “high”, “medium” or “low” (no findings were reported in respect of IIROC’s Trading Review & Analysis department):

  • Business Conduct Compliance (BCC)
    • Failure to Complete BCC Examination Program Changes on a Timely Basis (high priority)
    • Inability to Resolve Report Deficiencies Due in Part to a Lack of Guidance / Definitions (medium)
  • Enforcement
    • Inadequate Process – Meetings with IIROC Compliance Staff prior to a written referral being made by Compliance Staff to the Enforcement department (Pre-Referral Meetings) (medium)
    • Inadequate Enforcement Process – Holistic View of Dealer Members (medium)
  • Information Technology
    • Untimely Reporting – Information Security Program Material to the Finance, Audit and Risk (FAR) Committee (medium)
    • Inadequate Process – IT Related Enterprise Risk Management Testing Methodology (medium)
  • Market Surveillance (Equity & Debt)
    • Incomplete Documentation Within Debt Market Surveillance Records (low)

Lack of Follow-Through a Concern

A repeat finding, RR Staff note that BCC staff had not resolved issues identified in 2015 with respect to the adequacy of examination procedures to assess suitability in managed accounts and had not implemented procedures to assess Dealer Member compliance with National Instrument 81-105 Mutual Fund Sales Practices as previously agreed upon with RR Staff. IIROC acknowledged the finding, which in its view was due in large part to the timing of a change in BCC management.

IIROC Examinations Lack Teeth

The Report notes that BCC staff have had difficulty in ensuring certain Dealer Members adequately resolve repeat and/or significant deficiencies on a timely basis. According to the Report, the inability to resolve deficiencies is due in part to the lack of written guidance for BCC staff to categorize findings in the examination reports or define what constitutes a (i) repeat, (ii) significant, (iii) significant repeat or (iv) other finding and what constitutes an appropriate regulatory response by Dealer Members.

RR Staff expect IIROC to take regulatory action (i.e. referral to Enforcement, imposition of terms and conditions) to ensure deficiencies do not persist over long periods of time. RR Staff also acknowledge that IIROC’s new Consolidated Enforcement, Examination and Approval Rules relating to registration approvals (including the authority to impose terms and conditions on Dealer Members) became effective on September 1, 2016. Going forward, RR Staff expect this could be an important tool to achieve proper regulatory outcomes and RR Staff expect IIROC to use the tool when warranted, especially with respect to Dealer Members with repeat and /or significant deficiencies to ensure the deficiencies are resolved on a timely basis.

In response to RR Staff comments, the BCC department is developing guidance, targeted for release by the end of September 2017, for categorizing its examination findings as “repeat”, “significant”, “significant repeat” or “other”. IIROC is also drafting an analytic framework to assist staff in determining whether a compliance issue should be referred to Enforcement.

A Passing Grade

Overall, the Report reflects well on IIROC. RR Staff acknowledge that IIROC made sufficient progress in resolving other findings cited in the 2015 oversight report. Under the terms of its recognition orders, IIROC must administer and monitor compliance with securities laws and IIROC Rules by Dealer Members and others subject to its jurisdiction, including Alternative Trading Systems (ATSs). The Report advises that, other than the findings noted, RR Staff did not identify concerns about IIROC’s success in meeting the relevant terms and conditions of the recognition orders in the areas covered.

Also on July 4, 2017, IIROC released a brief response outlining some of the steps it is taking to address the issues raised in the Report.

Further clarification on the VAT registration of non-executive directors

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By Jerome Brink, Cliffe Dekker Hofmeyr

On 10 February 2017, SARS published Binding General Ruling 40 (BGR 40), in addition to Binding General Ruling (BGR 41) that was referred to in the article above (Rulings).

BGR 40 dealt with the manner in which non-executive directors (NEDs) should account for tax on their earnings as directors from an employees’ tax (PAYE) perspective, while BGR 41 dealt with the VAT consequences of NEDs’ earnings. While the Rulings provided much needed clarity on various interpretational issues, there were still one or two practical issues, which were not covered. In particular, the Rulings did not provide clear guidance on the manner in which companies and NEDs should have dealt with the taxation of their earnings prior to 1 June 2017. SARS therefore subsequently issued a separate media release on 17 February 2017 setting out further practical guidance.

The 17 February 2017 media release provided, among other things, as follows:

Previously NEDs were subject to employees’ tax because the directors’ fees received for services rendered were considered remuneration. However, due to amendments made in 2007 to the exclusions to the definition of “remuneration” in the Fourth Schedule to the Income Tax Act, No 58 of 1962, there was uncertainty as to whether the amounts payable to a NED were subject to the deduction of PAYE.

After consultation, review and application of the law it has been confirmed that a NED is regarded as an “independent contractor” and any director’s fees paid or payable to a NED for services rendered in that capacity are not regarded as remuneration.

NEDs receiving directors’ fees exceeding the compulsory registration threshold are required to register as VAT vendors from 1 June 2017. However, NEDs will not be required to account for VAT in respect of directors’ fees received prior to this date, provided such NED was subject to PAYE.

Notwithstanding the further guidance provided by SARS in its subsequent media release, published on 17 February 2017, there was still some uncertainty in respect of the position prior to 1 June 2017, particularly where a NED received directors’ fees exceeding the compulsory registration threshold and failed to account for VAT in addition to the fact that the company paying the NED also did not deduct PAYE.

SARS thus issued the updated BGR 41 referred to in the article above and issued a media release on 5 May 2017 in this regard. As per the SARS media release, the updated BGR 41 clarifies that:

  • A NED who is liable to register for VAT but has not done so yet, must register and account for VAT with effect from 1 June 2017 unless an earlier date of liability is chosen.
  • A NED who was actually registered for VAT before 1 June 2017 for other activities, but did not charge VAT on the director’s fees must charge VAT with effect from 1 June 2017 unless that person chooses to account for VAT on those fees from an earlier date.

The media release further importantly confirms that the above is applicable regardless of whether the fees earned by the NED were subject to PAYE or not. Therefore, whether the fees were subject to PAYE prior to 1 June 2017 does not affect the VAT liability as the obligation to charge VAT only arises from 1 June 2017 henceforth, notwithstanding that persons may choose to charge VAT of their own volition should they wish to do so.

In addition, the revised BGR 41 provides that any NED that carries on an enterprise in the Republic of South Africa and has exceeded the R1 million compulsory VAT registration threshold that has not registered for VAT as at the date of BGR 41 must apply for registration by no later than 1 June 2017. The revised Ruling 41 therefore provides guidance in respect of the provisions set out in s23(4)(b) of the Value-Added Tax Act, No 89 of 1991 (VAT Act) which states as follows:

Where any person has not applied for registration in terms of Chapter 3 of the Tax Administration Act and the Commissioner is satisfied that that person is liable to be registered in terms of this Act, that person shall be a vendor for the purposes of this Act with effect from the date on which that person first became liable to be registered in terms of this Act: Provided that the Commissioner may, having regard to the circumstances of the case, determine that person to be a vendor from such later date as the Commissioner may consider equitable.

Therefore, notwithstanding the fact that a NED may be considered a vendor for purposes of the VAT Act with effect from the date on which that person first became liable to be registered (i.e. a date prior to 1 June 2017), the effective date of such registration (liability date) as determined by the Commissioner of SARS under s23(4)(b) of the VAT Act, must be no later than 1 June 2017.

The further publications, media releases and revised BGR 41 issued by SARS hopefully provide more clarity.

European Banking Authority publishes draft recommendations for cloud computing

By Keith D. Rose, Arie van Wijngaarden and Ana Badour

In March 2017, the European Commission (EC) issued a public consultation document on Fintech. Cloud computing is a major area covered by the EC request for comment and requires delicate balancing between innovation and risk minimization. On one hand, cloud is an easily scalable and cost effective way for financial institutions to manage their data storage and processing. However, cloud also presents major banks with increased cybersecurity and compliance risk. The topic of cloud is particularly relevant because certain Fintech enterprises may not be subject to the same regulatory constraints as major financial institutions.

The European Banking Authority (EBA) published its response to the public consultation in June 2017.

EBA recommendations

The EBA notes that there is widespread uncertainty among major banks about how regulators approach outsourcing to cloud providers. In May 2017, the EBA released draft Recommendations on cloud for credit institutions and investment firms. The Recommendations cover “the security of data and systems, the location of data and data processing, access and audit rights, chain outsourcing and contingency plans and exit strategies.” The new Recommendations update the 2006 Committee of European Banking Supervisors (CEBS) Guidelines on Outsourcing. While maintaining the CEBS Guidelines emphasis on the ultimate accountability of senior management for orderly management and monitoring of the outsourced service, the new Recommendations add several significant points.

  • Security of Data and Systems – Institutions should conduct a thorough risk assessment prior to outsourcing to cloud based providers and should ensure that the confidentiality of the information is protected, including by having appropriate levels of encryption for data in transit, in memory and at rest.
  • Location of Data and Processing – The draft Recommendations suggest outsourcing institutions should inform regulators of the country where the service is to be performed “including the location of data” for material outsourcings and adopt a risk based approach towards outsourcing, including reviewing laws on data protection laws in the host jurisdiction. Institutions are suggested to “take special care” with respect to outsourcing outside the European Economic Area.
  • Access and Audit Rights – Outsourcing institutions should ensure cloud service providers allow the institution and their regulator “full access to its business premises, including the full range of devices, systems, networks and data used for providing the services outsourced.” Financial institutions should also ensure they have full confidence in the qualifications of their ability to effectively audit a service provider and full rights to do so.
  • Chain Outsourcing – Outsourcing Institutions should require subcontractors to fully comply with all existing requirements for the main cloud service provider. Notification periods for changes to subcontractor responsibilities should be contractually pre-agreed and the outsourcing institution should have right to terminate the relationship if the cloud service provider makes changes to subcontracted services which increase the risk of the outsourced services.
  • Contingency Planning – Financial Institutions should have comprehensive well tested exit plans and ensure the cloud service provider is obligated to conduct an orderly transfer of the service so as to maintain business continuity.

Canadian context

In Canada, the Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions’ (OSFI) Guideline B-10 Outsourcing of Business Activities, Functions and Processes (Guideline B-10) applies to ‘Federally Regulated Entities’ (as defined under Guideline B-10) material outsourcing arrangements (including cloud outsourcing arrangements), and addresses some subject topics similar to the Recommendations, such as location of records, audit rights and business continuity plans. For example, under Guideline B-10, FREs are expected to maintain material records in Canada.[1] Service providers are expected to keep financial institution data logically isolated “at all times, including under adverse conditions.” OSFI also expects FREs to obtain contractual provisions allowing OSFI to accompany the outsourcing FRE or independent auditor in the exercise of contractual audit rights. FREs are expected to maintain a Business Continuity Plan and back-up systems “commensurate with the risk of service disruption” and a centralized list of material outsourcing arrangements and advise OSFI about potential service interruptions. However, Guideline B-10 is broadly drafted and predates the use of cloud, and does not specifically address the use of cloud to the degree and detail set out in the Recommendations. For context within this posting, the term “FRE” includes, amongst other entities, banks (listed in Schedule I or II) to which the Bank Act (Canada) applies.

Conclusion

The EBA draft Recommendations and response to the EC request for comment on Fintech raise the possibility that European regulators may impose more detailed requirements with respect to outsourcing to the cloud for the foreseeable future. Financial institutions in other jurisdictions such as Canada may also find some benefit in tracking these developments in Europe, particularly if they have European operations.

To view all formatting for this article (e.g., tables, footnotes), please access the original here.

Financial Stability Board issues report on implications of fintech

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By Georgina Willcock, Jack Coles and Peter Reeves

The Financial Stability Board (FSB) has released a report on the potential financial stability implications of fintech, identifying ten key supervisory and regulatory issues, including:

  • the need to manage operational risk from third-party service providers;
  • mitigating cyber risks and monitoring macrofinancial risks;
  • the cross-jurisdictional compatibility of legal frameworks;
  • governance frameworks for big data;
  • shared learning between public and private sector parties; and
  • monitoring alternative configurations of digital currencies for national financial systems.

While the FSB acknowledged that “there are currently no compelling financial stability risks from emerging Fintech innovations” – perhaps in part due to the small size of the fintech sector – there is still a clear need for increased global cooperation to mitigate any risk that could impede the development of beneficial innovations.  Such global cooperation would also provide avenues for authorities to share information and experiences, helping to safeguard financial stability while encouraging innovation.

Ready or not, here comes CRS implementation

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By Lisa Brunton, Cliffe Dekker Hofmeyr

The Global Forum on Transparency and Exchange of Information for Tax Purposes monitors the standards on tax transparency and the exchange of tax information, namely exchange of information on request (EOIR); and automatic exchange of information (AEOI).

During 2014, the OECD, together with the G20, developed the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information in Tax Matters (Standard). The Standard draws extensively on earlier work of the OECD in the area of AEOI. It incorporates progress made within the European Union, as well as global anti-money laundering (AML) standards, with the intergovernmental implementation of the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) having acted as a catalyst for the move towards AEOI in a multilateral context.

The Standard extends and accelerates implementation of the OECD standard on AEOI; and requires substantial compliance by all Global Forum member countries with the standards of transparency required for EOIR. The OECD simultaneously proposed intensifying cooperation on transparency with regard to beneficial ownership – a proposal that was indubitably prompted by the revelations contained in the Panama papers that were leaked in April 2016.

The Standard is also known as the OECD’s Common Reporting Standard (CRS). It requires jurisdictions to obtain information from their financial institutions and automatically exchange that information with other jurisdictions on an annual basis, the intention being to reduce inter-jurisdictional tax evasion. It is also envisaged that the annual automatic exchange of third party information will enhance domestic tax compliance within the participating jurisdictions.

The CRS sets out the financial account information to be exchanged, the financial institutions required to report, the different types of accounts and taxpayers covered, as well as common due diligence procedures to be followed by financial institutions.

In total, 100 jurisdictions have agreed to start automatically exchanging financial account information in September 2017 and 2018, under the CRS.

South Africa is an early adopter of AEOI, which includes both the initiative stemming from South Africa having signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with the United States’ (US’s) Internal Revenue Service (IRS) regarding their FATCA, as well as the CRS.

The South African Revenue Service’s (SARS’s) FATCA and CRS filing season opened on 15 May 2017. Financial institutions required to report include South African banks and custodians, brokers, asset managers, private equity funds, certain investment vehicles, long-term insurers and other participants in the financial system.

The combination, among other things, of the OECD’s and G20’s Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Project, data leaks, FATCA, AEOI, beneficial ownership registers, and CRS; and numerous actions by governments to curb tax leakage is causing international tax planning to change dramatically and at an accelerated pace quite uncharacteristic for change on a global scale, which usually occurs gradually. Tax avoidance structures that once formed part of common business practice are now being dismantled or given a wide berth; either because they risk being challenged by tax authorities, or they expose the relevant taxpayer to reputational risk. Tax havens are now frowned upon in some quarters and low-tax jurisdictions are becoming less popular with large corporates. Instead, simpler, more substantive structures are trending. Although legal tax avoidance through profit shifting, using nominal tax rate differentials, legitimate tax deductions and special tax regimes, will remain crucial for limiting the tax liabilities of taxpayers, the sceptre of reputational risk and corporate responsibility weigh heavily upon them in this global environment of greater transparency.

Interesting then, that as financial institutions scramble to file their first reports with tax authorities in compliance with the CRS, loopholes in the global measure are appearing, and being exploited no less; making it possible for some taxpayers to remain undetected by obtaining second passports to hide their assets.

Although the CRS was developed to diminish tax evasion by imposing financial transparency initiatives, it is generating unintended consequences. Some financial institutions and their clients are spurring last ditch attempts to exploit the gaps left by the global initiative by purchasing so-called ‘fake residency’ certificates available in certain jurisdictions so that taxpayers’ details are not globally exchanged. Bulgaria, Granada, Hungary, Ireland, Latvia, Singapore, Spain, St Kitts and Nevis, Switzerland and the United Arab Emirates are examples of the jurisdictions offering residency programmes, which are capable of current exploitation; at least until the stated jurisdictions commit or begin exchanging financial data under the CRS.

John Christensen, chair of the Tax Justice Network (TJN) in the United Kingdom (UK), has reported that there has been an increase in the offering of ‘vague’ residencies by certain jurisdictions, which he believes is in response to the CRS’s information exchange processes. He observed that the range of residency alternatives appeared to be growing, with bankers and accountants increasingly recommending them to their clients.

Christensen goes on to observe that although the CRS aims to increase information flows and catch tax evaders, without the full participation of major economies, the information trail will terminate with non-compliant jurisdictions. This potential obstacle is exacerbated by countries such as the US refusing to commit to the CRS, on the basis that FATCA is sufficient.

As should be apparent from the foregoing, the issue with CRS implementation hinges on the definition of ‘residency’. Differences in the meanings of and threshold requirements for establishing tax residency across jurisdictions are creating challenges in the rollout of the CRS. Thus the possibility of obtaining a ‘fake residency’ certificate may arise in a secrecy jurisdiction which offers tax residency on extremely low minimum stay terms; or where it offers citizenship and residence in exchange for money or investments as a way to raise revenues without requiring a minimum stay in the jurisdiction at all.

According to Pascal Saint-Amans, director at the OECD’s Centre for Tax Policy and Administration, the residency loophole is well known and identified, and action is being taken to monitor and possibly neutralise it if it is used. However, Saint-Amans has stated that at present, there is no evidence that the residency loophole is going to be used because the application of CRS is based on residency. Furthermore, most of the citizenship by investment programmes grant citizenship and not residency to persons. He has, however, not discounted the risk altogether and is of the view that once the first exchanges of information begin among tax administrations, the analysis of the data will highlight the gaps. As authorities analyse the quality of the data and match it up with the corresponding information which they hold, he believes the issues will emerge and be addressed and countered appropriately.

Chris Orchard, former Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (HMRC) policy lead responsible for the implementation of the CRS in the UK, holds that one can never guarantee there will not be any loopholes when designing new standards. As stated above, the CRS draws on the OECD’s earlier work on automatic information exchange and incorporates several features employed in FATCA. Orchard states that jurisdictions are required to implement an anti-avoidance rule to ensure that anybody trying to circumvent the CRS, can be prohibited from so doing. He goes further, observing that the whole of the CRS is governed by the treaty network. All the exchanges under the CRS take place under exchange of information articles in treaties and treaties themselves have definitions of what residency means for purposes of the relevant treaty. It appears that anomalies that arise between treaty definitions and domestic definitions of residency, may potentially trigger further problems.

While it is envisaged that tackling the tax residency loophole will be an arduous process, the CRS seems to have shone a spotlight on it, which in turn may facilitate its resolution. The CRS requirements are closely affiliated with AML and know-your customer (KYC) requirements, and will undoubtedly evolve in parallel with the AML and KYC regulations. Other options also exist to combat this loophole, including blacklisting non-compliant jurisdictions, and/or employing the growing number of beneficial ownership registers to detect those exploiting dual residency or residency programmes for tax evasion purposes.

It remains to note that on 5 May 2017, the OECD launched a facility to disclose CRS avoidance schemes, which allows interested parties to report potential schemes to circumvent the CRS. Perhaps the OECD is not prepared to just sit back and wait for the issues to emerge?

Tax consequences of waiver of contractual rights

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By Ben Strauss, Cliffe Dekker Hofmeyr

Capital gains tax (CGT) is levied on the disposal of an asset. The terms “disposal” and “asset” are defined widely in the Eighth Schedule to the Income Tax Act, No 58 of 1962 (Act). The term “disposal” includes “the forfeiture, termination, redemption, cancellation, surrender, discharge, relinquishment, release, waiver, renunciation, expiry or abandonment of an asset” (see paragraph 11(1)(b) of the Eighth Schedule to the Act (Eighth Schedule)).

Paragraph 38 of the Eighth Schedule applies when a person disposes of an asset by way of a donation, or to a person who is a connected person in relation to the person disposing of the asset for a consideration that is below an arm’s length price.  In such a case, the asset is deemed to have been disposed of for a market-related consideration.

The reduction of a debt for inadequate consideration can give rise to either income tax (under s19 of the Act), or to CGT (under paragraph 12A of the Eighth Schedule) in the hands of a creditor. The tax depends on the way that the debtor applied the debt funding.

Donations tax is levied on the value of property disposed of under a donation. The term “donation” includes “any gratuitous waiver or renunciation of a right” (s55 of the Act – emphasis added).

The provisions above were the subject of Binding Private Ruling 273 (Ruling) issued by the South African Revenue Service (SARS) on 2 May 2017.  The facts were as follows: two companies (Co A and Co B) were both wholly-owned subsidiaries of another company. Co A had the right to receive from Co B “an annual quantity of produce” determined under a prescribed formula. Co A unilaterally waived the right against Co B.

Unfortunately, the further details of the arrangement between the parties and circumstances surrounding the waiver of the right are not set out in the Ruling.

Notably, it is not clear how Co A could unilaterally waive its right. Presumably, if Co A had a right it would have arisen under some contractual arrangement with Co B. If so, Co A would not have had the power to waive the right; the right would have had to have been terminated by mutual agreement between the parties. If that was the case, there would have been no question of a donation or disposal of the asset by waiver for tax purposes.

Nevertheless, SARS ruled that the waiver did not give rise to donations tax. Assuming that there had been a unilateral waiver of the right, it is unclear why donations tax was at issue in the Ruling at all.  As noted above, for a disposal to amount to a donation, there must be an element of gratuity. It is doubtful that the element of gratuity would have been present in the context of what appears to have been a commercial transaction. Nevertheless, it is encouraging to see that SARS continues to rule that commercial transactions in the ordinary course do not give rise to donations tax (see also, for example, Binding Private Ruling 252 dated 10 October 2016 and Binding Private Ruling 253 dated 19 October 2016).

Co A and Co B were “connected persons” in relation to each other. However, SARS nevertheless ruled that the waiver of the right for no consideration did not trigger paragraph 38 of the Eighth Schedule.  Again, it is not clear why that provision was at issue. The provision applies if there is a disposal to a person. If the right was simply waived, could it be said that there was a disposal of the right to Co B? (See, for example, Income Tax Case No 1859 74 SATC 213.)

SARS also ruled that neither s19 of the Act, nor paragraph 12A of the Eighth Schedule applied to the waiver. Those provisions apply where a debt owed is waived. It is not clear that the obligation to provide the produce annually actually was a debt owed at the time of the waiver.

Finally, as to value-added tax, SARS ruled that the waiver of the right to the produce for no consideration did not trigger the application of s10(4) of the Value-Added Tax Act, No 89 of 1991 to deem the value of the supply of the service to be at open market value.

Taxpayers should welcome the Ruling. But, unfortunately, as the Ruling does not set out the facts in detail, and as the Ruling does not set out SARS’s reasoning, taxpayers should take care in similar transactions.

The significance of South Africa signing multilateral convention to prevent BEPS in terms of pension funds

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By Magda Snyckers

On 7 June 2017, South Africa was one of more than 70 countries that signed the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (“MLI”).

The MLI is the result of certain of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s action points aimed at preventing base erosion and profit shifting (“BEPS”). It is aimed at facilitating swift, coordinated and consistent implementation of treaty-related BEPS measures in a bilateral context. In particular, it is intended to function as a mechanism to facilitate agreement to changes to treaties without the need for time consuming bilateral renegotiation.

The MLI applies to the signatories thereof that have taken the necessary steps to ratify it. Each party that has signed or will sign the MLI has provided or will provide a list of reservation and notifications, in terms of which it notifies:

  • which agreements are covered by the MLI;
  • which agreements contain provisions that are not subject to reservations under specific articles of the MLI; and
  • it elects optional provisions/reservations.

Provided that South Africa and the other Contracting State are both parties to the MLI and have both deposited notifications that the agreement is covered by the MLI (“Covered Agreement”), the MLI may, depending on the reservations and notifications of each Contracting State, amended the existing provisions of the Covered Agreement.

The MLI contains certain provisions that apply and cannot be opted out of, as well as certain optional provisions. The manner in which these optional provisions will apply is dictated by each country’s list of reservations and notifications.

For example, article 7(8) of the MLI contains certain Simplified Limitation on Benefits (“SLB”) provisions. This means that if a party qualifies as a resident under a treaty but does not qualify as a “qualified person” under article 7(9) of the MLI, it is not entitled to certain benefits provided by the Covered Agreement, as determined in terms of the SLB provisions.

Article 7(14) states that the SLB provisions shall apply in place of or in the absence of provisions of a Covered Agreement that would limit the benefits of the Covered Agreement. Although a party may reserve the right that the SLB provisions do not apply to a Covered Agreement that already contains such provisions, South Africa has not done so in respect of any of its treaties. As such, from South African perspective, the SLB provisions apply to Covered Agreements.

The question is whether the MLI is relevant to South African pension funds that are exempt from South African income and capital gains tax.

The MLI is relevant to pension funds that invest offshore, as they may be exposed to foreign taxes and the double taxation agreements that South Africa has entered into may provide exemption or reduction from such foreign taxes.

As such, the MLI may impact on the relief that a pension fund is entitled to claim in respect of existing treaties to which South Africa is a party. In particular, the SLB provisions will be very important to the pension fund. If the benefits of a pension fund are limited, it may suffer foreign taxes which it cannot set off against South African taxes.

Provided that the pension fund qualifies as a resident of an existing treaty and such treaty constitutes a “Covered Agreement”, the pension fund will have to consider if it constitutes a “qualified person” in terms of the above in order to be entitled to the benefits of the agreement. Therefore, a pension fund should take advice whether it will constitute a “qualified person” for purposes of the MLI.

It is noted that the MLI contains specific provisions as to when it will enter into force and these should only apply from a South African perspective once the MLI has been promulgated in the Government Gazette.

 

Disclaimer:

This article was first published by ENSafrica (www.ENSafrica.com) on 21 June 2017.

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